In Luke 2:22 we read, "When the days of their purification had been fulfilled according to the Law of Moses...," a reference to Leviticus 12. The flow of blood involved in birth made both mother and child unclean, or impure, under the Old Covenant ceremonial law. The period of impurity for a male child was 40 days (halved from that of the daughter's 80 days because the son was circumcised); afterward, sacrifices would be offered up to restore both mother and child to a state of ritual cleanness.
The third person plural pronoun in Luke 2:22 is significant because it tells us both Mary and Jesus were impure. Since Jesus was sinless, his being unclean could not have meant he was somehow guilty of sin. Thus, while ceremonial uncleanness in many ways symbolized man's alienation from God as a result of sin, it was only a symbol.
In other words, Luke 2:22 should disabuse all Christians of the unfortunately common notion that ceremonial uncleanness somehow equaled sinfulness.
2 comments:
In what situations do Christians misuse the thought that ceremonial uncleanliness means sinfulness? (Does the question make sense? I am not sure what mistake you are correcting, even though I find this post very interesting.)
The problem is less misuse than misunderstanding. In my experience, most Christians simply ignore the ceremonial Law. The letter to the Hebrews, however, demonstrates the depth of understanding of Christ's work available to someone who has meditated on the details of the ceremonial Law.
With regard to ceremonial cleanness and uncleanness, the system God set up in the Law underscores man's profound alienation from God: much of daily life would render one unclean and therefore disqualified from Temple worship. Now, however, Christ's blood has cleansed the world, and we are always welcome to worship on Zion, the heavenly Temple (Hebrews 9, 10, 12). At the very least, this should produce in us a profound gratitude. Beyond that, it might make some less inclined to skip services for more sleep or a football game.
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